What would be the reason for a reverse polarity '59 bridge? Evidently my Fender has a PG neck and a '59 RP bridge.
They do that just so the pickups when selecting both cancel out the hum.
Withoout looking up the wiring specs I'd guess that they do that to simplify the wiring so that the split coil options cancel hum. PRS does a simular thing with their 5 way rotary wiring.
What Robert said.
My guess is that they just flip the magnet. This allows you to get humcancelling when you combine single coils from two different humbuckers, ala PRS.
But this guitar doesn't have coil splitting so I don't see the need. It just has a 3 way switch.
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Originally Posted by greendy123They do that just so the pickups when selecting both cancel out the hum.
Well, they´re both humbuckers, so that´s not really a problem...
QUOTE=Robert S.]Without looking up the wiring specs I'd guess that they do that to simplify the wiring so that the split coil options cancel hum. PRS does a simular thing with their 5 way rotary wiring.[/QUOTE]
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If the guitar has no splitting options then it´s curious as to why exactly the one is reverse polarity.... is there maybe a model quot;one upquot; that HAS splitting going on?
Maybe i can shed a lite on this. Its called the Peter Green Mod since one of his techs in the 60ies flipped the magnet on his neck pup by mistake. Peter liked the both on pup setting, which is a kind of out of phase with humbuckers. If you take the volume back on the louder pup (in vintage Les Paul mostly the neck), it gets back to normal tone. So you have two both on tones handy. A balanced in phase und a out of phase. I think some Hamers have this factory wise.
- Dec 17 Thu 2009 20:55
What is the difference between a '59 reverse polarity and a regular '59?
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